Bilateral infiltrates aveolar patchy

I've been dealing with a laundry list of problems that stem from injuries and burn pit related conditions from Afghanistan. It got to the point where it was time to get it checked out. Lower back pain may be overlapping with other conditions being looked at. I was diagnosed with sciatica years after an injury but no MRI were done and Im not sure if X-rays were done back then.
At the time of MRI, I had some symptoms of sciatica but they are no were near when I ran or exercised. I stopped running about 5 years ago due to pain. I got the call from the doctor saying results reflect normal wear and tear for my age. I have a couple EMG coming up. Rheumatology wants me to do a MRI for SI joints. bilateral Hoffman and wing scapula.
I'm just trying to get an idea if this MRI results may show some any signs of sciatica when not aggravated by running or exercises. Should I consider an MRI in the future when Sciatica symptoms flare up when its aggravated by running?

Pictures were pixelated
Similar height and alignment.
Marrow signal within normal limits.
No gross abnormal marrow infiltration.
Conus and the visualized thoracic cord normal in signal. No definite cord edema.
Chronic degenerative changes.
Posterior disc bulges, most pronounced along L5-S1, measuring approximately 3 mm AP with small annular fissure.
No definite large posterior disc herniations causing high-grade spinal canal stenosis. Spinal canal patent.
Facet arthropathy.
Foraminal narrowings, most pronounced along L3-4, L4-5 and L5-S1, minimal to mild. Consider correlation with electrophysiologic exams.
Impression:
Chronic degenerative changes as described.

Hello! Can someone please help me interpret these PET scan results? I have been having fevers without any clear cause for 3 months now, and although the doctors have very low suspicions for lymphoma, this makes me nervous that I had lymph nodes that were FDG avid. Thank you!
18F with swollen axillary and cervical lymph nodes for the past three months and fever of unknown origin. Have had all the infectious and rheumatological work up imaginable. History of anxiety and depression. Genetic testing was unremarkable except for one of the genes that is correlated with Yao syndrome.

FINDINGS: Overall PET and CT image quality and inter-modality registration are satisfactory. Mediastinal blood pool SUVavg is 3.6. Hepatic parenchyma SUVavg is 2.3. Head and Neck: Reactive, bilateral level 2 FDG avid cervical lymph nodes. Thorax: Physiologic FDG uptake within the thorax. Abdomen and Pelvis: Decreased density affecting the liver parenchyma suggestive of diffuse fatty infiltration with heterogeneous FDG avid appearance. Osseous Structures: Physiologic FDG uptake within the osseous structures. Lower Extremities: Physiologic FDG uptake. 

England - My mum, 72, collapsed 3 weeks’ ago. She’s had 2 MRIs and went really downhill this time last week, unable to speak except yes and no, concentration of a 2 year old (kept holding her nurses button cord over her nose), choking when swallowing. I’ve put the results of her MRI below.
I was told last week they believed she had a malignant cancer (they believe gliomatosis cerebri - they keep saying a lot of ‘diffuse’ on the scan). They started palliative care referral and I was told she had weeks to short months to live.
She started a course of steroids last Friday (8mg) and is now almost back to the way she was just after her fall. She can say sentences but is confused (thinks it’s 1935), when concentrating she gets a tremor in her right side. But she can now sit up and speak full sentences. I’ve been to see her twice today and noticed a difference - sometimes she stops mid sentence, other times I get a full sentence. When I walked in tonight she was sat on her bed with her bag packed thinking she was going home, trying to put trousers on. More like dementia symptoms than the end of life symptoms I saw this time last week.
I’m now so confused. Are the steroids causing this improvement?
Her consultant seemed surprised she’d had such a turnaround and is going to see her tomorrow and keep her dosage at 8mg. He said he didn’t see how they would help swelling as he couldn’t see much swelling. Here’s her report:
“T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the bifrontal lobes (predominantly white matter, though there is cortical involvement) , genu of the corpus callosum, left insula and corona radiata thalami (left more than right). Some areas appear to demonstrate restricted diffusion, for example the left insula. Though the predominant feature is facilitated diffusion. There is some swelling of the gyri in the left frontal lobe.
Further patchy T2 and FLAIR hyperintensities in the white matter are noted, which may represent mild small vessel disease.
Prominence of the lateral and third ventricles in keeping with age related generalised cerebral atrophy.
No mass, collection or haemorrhage. No convincing abnormal enhancement post-contrast administration.
Normal flow voids within the major blood vessels.
No pathological contrast enhancement.
Conclusion: 1. Extensive changes involving the frontal lobes, left deep brain nuclei and insula. These appearances are non-specific. The most likely diagnosis is an infiltrative process such as an infiltrating low grade glioma / diffuse glioma / gliomatosis cerebra. The lack of enhancement makes lymphoma unlikely. The appearances are not likely for a viral or limbic encephalitis.”
Should I be hopeful she’s going to have a big turnaround? Honesty would be much appreciated. Can this be fixed? They’ve said she can’t have a biopsy unless she’s walking (she could stand up now but would need 2 people to help her walk).

I (52F) went to A&E back in late February because I waws having trouble drawing a full breath. Thinking I was going to be Rx'd some inhalers and perhaps referred to the respirology (I've been having problems for years but have never formally been diagnosed with asthma), you can imagine my shock when I was advised that I was being admitted because they were unhappy with some cardiac blood work results (they're working through those as I type).
Anyway, I'm on a waiting list to be seen by the Respiratory service (appointment is in mid July) but I've been given access to the radiology report(s) from all of the film they took on the day of my visit to A&E (X ray/CT scan etc).

A HOSPITAL NEAR YOU Patient Name: SomeWomanFromCanada MIS Number: 8186935918824 Hospital Number: 295375063 10118287 22/02/2024 CT Angiogram pulmonary Clinical Question:SOB intermittent worse this today, raised d-dimer and troponin?PE Findings: No previous imaging available for comparison. Adequate opacification of the pulmonary artery trunk (350HU). No pulmonary embolism from the pulmonary artery trunk to the subsegmental levels. There is reflux of contrast into the hepatic veins, no other radiological evidence of right heart strain. There is patchy atelectasis and parenchymal infiltrate in both lower lobes. There are small granulomas noted in the right upper, lower lobe and the left upper lobe and scattered tiny sub 2mm nodules in the right middle and lower lobes. No pleural effusion or focal consolidation. No endobronchial lesions. No thoracic lymphadenopathy. Unremarkable appearance of the imaged upper abdominal viscera. No destructive osseous lesions. Conclusion: No pulmonary embolism. Non specific patchy atelectasis and parencymal infiltrate as desribed. Dr Cassian Andor Consultant Radiologist GMC 2266977 This report is generated for the referring clinician. Should patients have queries regarding the report, these should be discussed with the referring clinical team. Reported by: Dr Orson KRENNICK

Can anyone please tell me what to make of this report?
I''m most interested in the references to _patchy atelectasis_ and _parencymal infiltrate_
From my limited medical knowledge, there's something going on in my lungs but it's not cancerous or anything icky like that nor is it cardiac in nature or a blood clot.
FWIW, I am prone to getting bronchitis every time I get a head cold (regardless of how mild the cold is); in the winter, cold air triggers repeated episodes of bronchitis (when I lived in Canada, I carried a bottle of Buckleys Mixture and an oral syringe in my purse all winter every winter because it was the only thing that would come close to helping the cough).
I've also recently been prescribed a 'blue' salbutamol (rescue) inhaler and a Clenil Modulite 100mcg (beclamethasone) 'brown' (reliever) inhaler by my GP (while I wait for my appointment with the respiratory service) ... I've felt better since I've started using them (I had a lung function test this morning and haven't had the Clenil Modulite since Monday night and am feeling a little congested in my chest.
Anyway, I am new to all of this and I thank you all for a) reading this far and b) offering your collective wisdom as I try to figure out WTF is going on.

36yo male ex smoker, have been vaping. So I recently had a CT scan following 2 x rays due to a bout of pnemonia. They found lung nodules and I'm terrified that i might have lung cancer. Struggling to stay away from google which I know is a bad idea. The anxiety is affecting my daily life. Just hoping someone else has been in a similar position and turned out ok? Scan results below:
CT Scan- 18/4/24
Clinical history: Recent left upper lobe pneumonia. Left hilar adenopathy. Regular use of vapes. Findings: No previous CT imaging available for comparison. No axillary, supraclavicular or mediastinal lymphadenopathy. There is a minor amount of residual thymic tissue in the anterior mediastinum. As seen on plain film imaging, there is a band of linear atelectasis/scarring through the lingula lobe. There are small scattered interstitial nodules at the lung bases bilaterally that have been key imaged, some demonstrating tree-in-bud type morphology suggestive of bronchiolitis. No further pulmonary mass lesions or consolidation on either side. No pleural or pericardial effusion. Limited views of the solid upper abdominal organs are unremarkable. Visualised osseous structures are unremarkable. COMMENT: Linear atelectasis/scarring through the lingula is again demonstrated. No concerning pulmonary hilar lymphadenopathy. There is small bilateral predominantly basal interstitial pulmonary nodules that I suspect are inflammatory having a somewhat tree-in-bud distribution likely secondary to bronchiolitis. A follow HRCT is advised in 3 months to assess for stability.
CHEST X-RAY #2 (15/04/2024) Clinical History: Left upper lobe pneumonia treated with antibiotics. Smoker. Comparison: Today’s study is compared with the previous chest x-ray from 03/04/2024. Findings: Heart size is within normal limits. There remains ill-defined infiltrates in the left mid zone that appear to be within the lingula on lateral projection without a discrete mass or consolidation on either side. There remains prominence of the left pulmonary hilum suggestive of lymphadenopathy. Pleural contours are unremarkable. No free subdiaphragmatic gas. Osseous structures are unremarkable. COMMENT: Persistent infiltrates within the lingula and left pulmonary hilar adenopathy but could be further assessed with CT.
CHEST X-RAY #1 (3/04/2024)RADIOGRAPHY: Chest History: Cough for 10 days with right basal crackles and suspected pneumonia Comparison: No recent radiographs available Findings: 36 years old patient Number of Images: PA and left lateral Good inspiratory effort. Linear atelectasis in the left lung base. The lateral view shows poorly defined airspace consolidation in the lingular segment of the left upper lobe. Prominent left hilum with indistinct borders may simply represent reactive adenopathy in this age group. The trachea is central. No pleural effusion. Normal heart size shape and position. Subtle sclerosis of the anterior left 5th rib of indeterminate cause. Comment: Consolidation in the left upper lobe Prominent left hilar shadow most likely due to reactive adenopathy. Recommendation: Correlation with clinical infective parameters and blood results. In the appropriate clinical setting appropriate treatment for infective pneumonia should be commenced and repeat radiographs in 7-10 days time are recommended. If the current changes don't rapidly resolve then further evaluation by means of CT chest would be indicated.

NECK: There is mild increased FDG uptake associated with small bilateral internal jugular and posterior cervical chain lymph nodes (SUV max 2.97). There is also moderate increased FDG uptake associated with additional small bilateral lower cervical/supraclavicular lymph nodes (SUV max 5.43-7.28). CHEST: There is intense increased FDG uptake associated with numerous enlarged mediastinal and bilateral hilar lymph nodes, including right paratracheal, superior mediastinal, anterior mediastinal, prevascular, pretracheal, precarinal, subcarinal, AP window, paraesophageal, para-aortic, azygoesophageal, bilateral hilar, and bilateral cardiophrenic region lymph nodes (SUV max 14.03-16.42). There are asymmetric patchy ill-defined groundglass opacities in the lungs, most pronounced in the right upper lobe, demonstrating a background of mild FDG uptake on the PET scan (SUV max 1.54). Additional small ill-defined nodular opacities are also noted in the right upper lobe, right middle lobe, and left upper lobe, also demonstrating mild FDG uptake on the PET scan (SUV max 1.17-1.88). ABDOMEN/PELVIS: Splenic activity appears within normal limits, demonstrating background activity which is slightly less than the background liver activity. There are multiple enlarged intensely hypermetabolic lymph nodes throughout the retroperitoneum and mesentery, including periceliac, porta hepatis, portacaval, peripancreatic, left para-aortic, and mesenteric lymph nodes (SUV max 12.60-14.89). Additional small hypermetabolic bilateral retrocrural/paraspinal lymph nodes are also noted (SUV max 6.70-7.39). There are also enlarged bilateral iliac chain/pelvic sidewall and bilateral inguinal/groin lymph nodes, right greater than left, also demonstrating moderately intense increased FDG uptake on the PET scan (SUV max 8.66-11.78). Incidental note is made of cholelithiasis. There is no evidence of ascites or bowel obstruction.

Could someone please decipher this medical language for me please? From my mum’s medical notes following a fall last week and extreme personality changes. I know it’s probably not good, I completely understand that.
72 year old female.
T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the bifrontal lobes (predominantly white matter, though there is cortical involvement) , genu of the corpus callosum, left insula and corona radiata thalami (left more than right). Some areas appear to demonstrate restricted diffusion, for example the left insula. Though the predominant feature is facilitated diffusion. There is some swelling of the gyri in the left frontal lobe.
Further patchy T2 and FLAIR hyperintensities in the white matter are noted, which may represent mild small vessel disease.
Prominence of the lateral and third ventricles in keeping with age related generalised cerebral atrophy.
No mass, collection or haemorrhage. No convincing abnormal enhancement post-contrast administration.
Normal flow voids within the major blood vessels.
No pathological contrast enhancement.
Conclusion: 1. Extensive changes involving the frontal lobes, left deep brain nuclei and insula. These appearances are non-specific. The most likely diagnosis is an infiltrative process such as an infiltrating low grade glioma / diffuse glioma / gliomatosis cerebra. The lack of enhancement makes lymphoma unlikely. The appearances are not likely for a viral or limbic encephalitis”

[CMS PED 6 Q]
24hr old neonate shows respiratory distress and seizure
CXR) diffuse hazy infiltrate bilaterally
leukocytosis 12500, seg neutrophil 65%
CSF) 4 leukocytes (90% lymphocytes), glucose 75, protein 25
A) GBS B) meconium aspiration C) pneumococcal D)PCP pneumonia E) RSV pneumonia
Answer is A
I know GBS is for neonates, but what I don't get is the CFS analysis, seeing the CSF numbers it is obviously for viral infection, not bacterial,, not E though,,, but not A neither!!!
Does anyone can explain for this???
CMS doesn't have any explanation for this CSF result.

Female, age 72 - collapsed last week and I’ve had a report back I don’t understand (I’m the daughter). From what I understand this indicates a cancerous brain tumour, is there anyone who could decipher this for me?
For context, originally thought it was a stroke but that’s been ruled out. Doctor used the words “malignant disease, probably cancer”.
She fell last Thursday and has since had issues with concentration, focus and mobility. She can talk and a few memory issues. She has just finished a course of radiotherapy for skin cancer found on her breast.
“T2/FLAIR hyperintensity in the bifrontal lobes (predominantly white matter, though there is cortical involvement) , genu of the corpus callosum, left insula and corona radiata thalami (left more than right). Some areas appear to demonstrate restricted diffusion, for example the left insula. Though the predominant feature is facilitated diffusion. There is some swelling of the gyri in the left frontal lobe.
Further patchy T2 and FLAIR hyperintensities in the white matter are noted, which may represent mild small vessel disease.
Prominence of the lateral and third ventricles in keeping with age related generalised cerebral atrophy.
No mass, collection or haemorrhage. No convincing abnormal enhancement post-contrast administration.
Normal flow voids within the major blood vessels.
No pathological contrast enhancement.
Conclusion: 1. Extensive changes involving the frontal lobes, left deep brain nuclei and insula. These appearances are non-specific. The most likely diagnosis is an infiltrative process such as an infiltrating low grade glioma / diffuse glioma / gliomatosis cerebra. The lack of enhancement makes lymphoma unlikely. The appearances are not likely for a viral or limbic encephalitis.”

Looking for opinions on surgery. I’m working with a spine specialist and have had an ESI recently done (waiting to see how much it helps). Neurosurgeon appointment is scheduled for next week however this current dr has said surgery will likely be needed. I just want thoughts from people who’ve had similar findings and have been through this. Main symptoms: Bi-lateral sciatica from lower back to knees, numbness/tingling in left calf/foot, heaviness and weakness in both legs/lower back area. Went to ER last month when I could no longer take the pain after ignoring it for some time. Currently on Celebrex 2x a day and Lyrica 1x a day + have to top it off with weed and tylenol/muscle relaxers most of the time. Have not done any PT.

8 year old Female (8F) daughter is being tested for cancer. She has abnormal blood work. High absolute mono, mcv, mch, and ast. Low rdw, platelets, absolute eos, calcium, potassium, and albumin. She has also had two X-rays with these findings. Should I be worried or are they just being extremely cautious?
X-rays 1
Diagnosis/Reason for Exam: pain Number of Views: AP view of the bilateral lower extremities, hips to ankle (3 images plus composite image); lateral view of the left and right knees (2 images)
Findings: Standing legs. Normal alignment of the lower extremities. Mechanical axis of the leg passes through the central knee joint bilaterally. Faintly heterogeneous mineralization of the proximal left femoral diaphysis. No obvious bony deformity or displaced fracture on AP evaluation.
Knees. No evidence of fracture or suspicious bone lesion. No traumatic malalignment. Suspect small suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
Impression: Standing legs. 1. Normal leg alignment. No obvious deformity on AP evaluation.

1. Mildly irregular mineralization of the proximal left femoral diaphysis which could be projectional or related to underlying bone lesion. Dedicated AP and lateral views of the right femur are recommended for further evaluation.

Knees. No acute osseous findings. Suspect small bilateral knee effusions, left smaller than right.
REPORT FLAGGED FOR PROVIDER ATTENTION
X-ray 2
Comparison: 4/11/2024 Diagnosis/Reason for Exam: Abnormal left femur xray Number of Views: 2
Findings: Redemonstration of the mildly heterogeneous density with faint multifocal lucency of the proximal femoral diaphysis. There is thin linear density along the lateral proximal femoral cortex which has an appearance like periosteal reaction, although cortical bridging can sometimes also have that appearance. No cortical thinning or erosion is seen. No evidence of dislocation.
Impression: Persistence of the mild patchy lucency of the proximal femoral diaphysis with apparent faint periosteal reaction. No cortical erosion. The appearance is subtle and may represent early bone lesion or asymmetric reactive marrow. Consider contrast-enhanced MRI of the left femur for definitive evaluation. Limited sequences of the contralateral femur should be obtained for comparison of reactive marrow.
REPORT FLAGGED FOR PROVIDER ATTENTION

8 year old Female (8F) daughter is being tested for cancer. She has abnormal blood work. High absolute mono, mcv, mch, and ast. Low rdw, platelets, absolute eos, calcium, potassium, and albumin. She has also had two X-rays with these findings. Should I be worried or are they just being extremely cautious?
X-rays 1
Diagnosis/Reason for Exam: pain Number of Views: AP view of the bilateral lower extremities, hips to ankle (3 images plus composite image); lateral view of the left and right knees (2 images)
Findings: Standing legs. Normal alignment of the lower extremities. Mechanical axis of the leg passes through the central knee joint bilaterally. Faintly heterogeneous mineralization of the proximal left femoral diaphysis. No obvious bony deformity or displaced fracture on AP evaluation.
Knees. No evidence of fracture or suspicious bone lesion. No traumatic malalignment. Suspect small suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
Impression: Standing legs. 1. Normal leg alignment. No obvious deformity on AP evaluation.

1. Mildly irregular mineralization of the proximal left femoral diaphysis which could be projectional or related to underlying bone lesion. Dedicated AP and lateral views of the right femur are recommended for further evaluation.

Knees. No acute osseous findings. Suspect small bilateral knee effusions, left smaller than right.
REPORT FLAGGED FOR PROVIDER ATTENTION
X-ray 2
Comparison: 4/11/2024 Diagnosis/Reason for Exam: Abnormal left femur xray Number of Views: 2
Findings: Redemonstration of the mildly heterogeneous density with faint multifocal lucency of the proximal femoral diaphysis. There is thin linear density along the lateral proximal femoral cortex which has an appearance like periosteal reaction, although cortical bridging can sometimes also have that appearance. No cortical thinning or erosion is seen. No evidence of dislocation.
Impression: Persistence of the mild patchy lucency of the proximal femoral diaphysis with apparent faint periosteal reaction. No cortical erosion. The appearance is subtle and may represent early bone lesion or asymmetric reactive marrow. Consider contrast-enhanced MRI of the left femur for definitive evaluation. Limited sequences of the contralateral femur should be obtained for comparison of reactive marrow.
REPORT FLAGGED FOR PROVIDER ATTENTION

A nurse who I saw regarding this issue told me that the problems I have from my neck mri has nothing to do with the symptoms I am having because according to her it’s “mild” so I should have no symptoms and said I am not a candidate for surgery. Below is my report I am currently 27 years of age had this pain for a year and still in pain every time I wake up I can feel some odd weakness in my shoulders and the issue can spread all the way down to my hand.. I am so lost and scared.
EXAM: MRI CERVICAL SPINE WITHOUT CONTRAST
HISTORY: Neck pain.
TECHNIQUE: Multiplanar, multi-sequential MRI of the cervical spine was obtained on a 3T scanner according to standard protocol.
COMPARISON: None available.
FINDINGS:
OSSEOUS STRUCTURES: Vertebral body heights are preserved. No marrow edema or destructive marrow infiltrative process.
ALIGNMENT: Straightening of the normal cervical lordosis in the upper cervical spine, which may reflect muscle spasm or patient positioning. No spondylolisthesis.
SPINAL CORD: Normal morphology and signal intensity.
POSTERIOR FOSSA/CERVICOMEDULLARY JUNCTION: Normal.
NECK/PARASPINAL SOFT TISSUES: Unremarkable.
INCLUDED THORACIC SPINE: Unremarkable.
DISCS: Normal height and signal.
The following axial levels are imaged and detailed below:
C2-C3: No disc bulging or herniation. No spinal canal or foraminal stenosis.
C3-C4: No disc bulging or herniation. No spinal canal or foraminal stenosis.
C4-C5: No disc bulging or herniation. No spinal canal or foraminal stenosis.
C5-C6: Focal central disc protrusion. Partial effacement of the ventral CSF space. Mild spinal canal stenosis. Mild bilateral foraminal stenosis.
C6-C7: No disc bulging or herniation. No spinal canal or foraminal stenosis.
C7-T1: No disc bulging or herniation. No spinal canal or foraminal stenosis.

The radiation report said the following as summary:
"bilateral grade 3 varicocele with mildly reduced left testicular volume and bilateral small patchy intratesticular hyperechoic area"
The doctor said that I would need surgery to fix both sides. So, I am looking for recommendations for surgery doctors in Bengaluru. My doctor mentioned it's either a regular incision or laparoscopic. He mentioned embolization is still not proven.
Also, if you have any anecdotes from you or in your circle, that will be lovely to keep in consideration.
My insurance won't cover this as I just took medical insurance this last month. I am seeing some folks complaining about pain/swelling months after surgery as well. So, looking to learn from others' experiences.
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Does anyone have severe shin pain? I already had two shin - TIB / FIB mris to rule out stress fracture?
My shins are so sensitive to the touch. I can't run anymore. This has been going on for five years. Sometimes I also have burning and tingling on the bottom of my feet.
Can anyone else relate to having all of these other problems too?
Big Conditions: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Mast Cell Activation Syndrome, and Postural Orthostatic Tachycardia
Fatigue
Joint laxity

• Subluxations in hips, shoulders, ribs, fingers, ankles
• Hypermobility in hips, knees, shoulders, ankle
• Head: migraines
• Mouth: History of dental crowding, dental teeth cracking, root canal, bruxism, temporomandibular disorder, jaw popping
• Eyes: Bilateral astigmatism, high myopia, retina 450
  • Epistaxis - Pervasive nosebleeds in my youth. Had four cauterizations to correct this issue.
• Neck: Neck tension
• Hands:
  • Unable to handwrite due to pain, never have been able to hold a pencil properly, handwriting has declined, piano playing used to cause me pain.
  • Double jointed thumbs and some fingers, can't bend thumbs
• Wrist: Pain in wrists for pushups, push press with bar, scooping cookies
• Shoulder: Shoulder instability and posterior shoulder impingement
  • Sharp pain in shoulder when lifting arms and doing tennis serves (right side)
• Elbows: Hypermobility in elbows
• Spine: Minimal disk bulge T6, L4-5, C3-6- Disk protrusions
• Ribs: Slipping rib syndrome
• Gastrointestinal
  • 1 polyp, 1 ulcer
  • Hemmorhoids
• SI joint: Consistent lower back pain
  • SI joint degeneration – CT Scan on Feb 2021
  • Sacroiliitis on MRI- September 2020
• Hips:
  • Fixed my bilateral hip dysplasia, cam impingement, and chondral lateral separation with bilateral periacetabular osteotomy and arthroscopy surgery (labral repair and femoral osteoplasty) June 2021 and December 2021 -
  • Had lateral central edge angle of 9 and 14 – left and right hip
• Pelvis:
  • Focal Adenomyosis
  • Endometriosis: Stage IV deep infiltrative and peritoneal endometriosis excision (uterolyosis, colon, and rectal endometriosis) and laparoscopy (May 2, 2022, June 14, 2023) endometriomas, adhesions, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia in teens, urinary urgency, urinary retention after surgery, pain with bowel movements
  • Vulva: Congenital neuroproliferative vestibulodynia/vulvodynia, occasional pudendal neuralgia symptoms,
    • Pubic bone sensitivity
• Legs:
  • Groin pain,
  • Knee pain - patellar tilt
  • Bilateral sensitivity on tibia
  • Extreme calf tightness
• Feet:
  • Accessory navicular bone in left foot - left foot kidner procedure -
  • Bilateral bunions
  • History of tendonitis
• Ankles:
  • History of ankle sprains
  • Ankle effusion
• Allergies: Mast Cell Activation Syndrome
  • Seasonal allergies in Minnesota- Runny nose, plugged ears, itchy eyes, pollen allergy
  • Urticaria and dermatitis randomly appeared in the last year starting in Feb 2021 diagnosed with chronic idiopathic urticaria - Mast Cell Activation Syndrome (MCAS)?
• Skin:
  • Keratosis
  • itchyosis vulgaris

For context-
I am 38 year old female with no other health issues other than being overnight, neurofibromatosis type I (which hasn’t really affected my life) and high blood pressure.
I went to the hospital Friday for shortness of breath, low blood oxygen, and high heart rate.
I was admitted with pneumonia upon X-ray and CT scan. I spent the entire weekend in the hospital and had consultations with oncology and pulmonologist as they saw a mass on my left lung in size of 4cm x 3cm.
Here is what the report said- and I’d love to know any other opinions on the chances of this being benign because I can’t stop Dr. Google and I am very anxious since finding out this news
I do have a biopsy scheduled for Tuesday (also anxious about this procedure).
Report states “Patient was noted to have bilateral lung masses on imaging in the setting of known neurofibromatosis. She also has findings possibly consistent with lymphadenopathy. The patient was seen by Dr.***** of pulmonary who will arrange an outpatient biopsy as an outpatient with consideration of additional PET/ CT as well. She was seen by oncology while here. LDH level was normal. Depending on clinical course and biopsy results she may be referred to oncology again as an outpatient.”
“There is extensive mediastinal adenopathy with paratracheal, hilar, and subcarinal adenopathy. There is a 4 x 3 cm mass in the superior segment of the left lower lobe and a small pleural effusion. There is central airspace disease.
The radiologist notes a mass on the right but this seems more like infiltrate to me.”
Could this mass be something from an infection like pneumonia or COVID? Also is it possible that I have adult onset asthma - never had these issues with pneumonia until COVID hit me three times.
All of my blood work also came back normal- nothing that was out of normal range compared to blood work I had done for my annual physical in January and everything pretty much lined up. d

For context-
I am 38 year old female with no other health issues other than being overnight, neurofibromatosis type I (which hasn’t really affected my life) and high blood pressure.
I went to the hospital Friday for shortness of breath, low blood oxygen, and high heart rate.
I was admitted with pneumonia upon X-ray and CT scan. I spent the entire weekend in the hospital and had consultations with oncology and pulmonologist as they saw a mass on my left lung in size of 4cm x 3cm.
Here is what the report said- and I’d love to know any other opinions on the chances of this being benign because I can’t stop Dr. Google and I am very anxious since finding out this news
I do have a biopsy scheduled for Tuesday (also anxious about this procedure).
Report states “Patient was noted to have bilateral lung masses on imaging in the setting of known neurofibromatosis. She also has findings possibly consistent with lymphadenopathy. The patient was seen by Dr.***** of pulmonary who will arrange an outpatient biopsy as an outpatient with consideration of additional PET/ CT as well. She was seen by oncology while here. LDH level was normal. Depending on clinical course and biopsy results she may be referred to oncology again as an outpatient.”
“There is extensive mediastinal adenopathy with paratracheal, hilar, and subcarinal adenopathy. There is a 4 x 3 cm mass in the superior segment of the left lower lobe and a small pleural effusion. There is central airspace disease.
The radiologist notes a mass on the right but this seems more like infiltrate to me.”
Could this mass be something from an infection like pneumonia or COVID? Also is it possible that I have adult onset asthma - never had these issues with pneumonia until COVID hit me three times.
All of my blood work also came back normal- nothing that was super out of normal range compared to blood work I had done for my annual physical in January.

Was diagnosed with pneumonia last night. I’m worried it was from exposure to some toxic gas from a stupid accident in my house. Everyone else, doctors I have seen included, think I’m crazy.
Background:
Quit smoking 56 days ago. Never had pneumonia before. Pain came in my chest and back when breathing deep last Thursday afternoon. Came on after a some exercise and a PFT and a chemical exposure over the days before: short intense hike Sunday 4/7 - 3.5 miles/1 hour, 18 mile hard bike ride 4/8, 14 mile easy bike ride 4/9, did the PFT that was abnormal 4/10 at 9 AM. Pain when breathing started afternoon of 4/11.
Here’s the ‘chemical exposure’ - after the PFT last Wednesday, I also stupidly accidentally microwaved an old drink coaster that was made out of an old circuit board with a rubber gasket around it. Like this one: https://imgur.com/a/WwFPoas
The things that were microwaved - probably heavy metals, definitely horrible rubber - and the gas it produced was very toxic, so it seemed. Hurt to breathe in. Had to hold my breath to clear the kitchen out by opening windows, putting on air filter, move the coastemicrowave outside. Not exaggerating that it immediately hurt to breath in and I had to hold my breath. I even went to Lowe’s to buy a serious mask/respirator to clear out more stuff after I got the windows open. (I moved the microwave and coaster out and turned on a HEPA filter later with the mask on me while I did all that).
NOTE - there was NOT a lot of visible smoke, but the smell was VERY strong.
I was maybe exposed to the whatever the gas/smoke was for maybe 15-20 minutes at most, at its densest. Ask said, it was hard to breath, so I ran outside, got fresh air, held my breath, went inside, opened windows, and repeated that several times. Then went and bought the respiratomask to finish cleaning out the kitchen with. Then I left the windows open and ran a HEPA filter in there for 2+ days straight.
So, Thursday it starts to hurt to breath occasionally Friday night it’s worse, Saturday day I spent most of the day standing and the pain when away. Saturday night it’s back, messed with my sleep and then on Sunday I coughed up some bloody mucus. Bloody mucus since Sunday, 1-2x a day. No cough, not a lot of plegm with the mucus.
I called the on call doctor for my PCP, and she says it’s probably not the smoke and it would be fine to wait to see my PCP on Monday. See my PcP, because of how the pain is worse when turning, and only when breathing in and breathing in deeply, she thinks it’s strained muscles from the bike ride. I’m satisfied with that.
Monday night it starts to hurt in a new scary way, a spasms way. Same thing Tuesday afternoon. I go to urgent care, urgent care sends me to the ER. ER runs bloodwork, does an ultrasound (looking for gallbladder problems?), EKG and a CT scan.
Bloodwork results: https://imgur.com/a/V7OTo8t
(Note: D-Dimer was high, but that’s been high since December for unknown reasons - CT scan in December was clear for PE then too. Also loaded historical WBCs and historical Neutrophils, so how you can see normal range is ‘raised’ for me)
CT Scan: https://imgur.com/a/23phLQy
EKG: https://imgur.com/a/VfIbO0u
Bloodwork is mostly fine. My WBC is elevated for me - in the normal range - as it’s normally 2.5-3.5 and has been that way since 2007. Most of this comes from my neutrophils being normals for once which are usually low:
EKG is normal. Ultrasound is normal.
CT scan says this:
LUNGS Mild, patchy infiltrates in the inferior right middle and lower lobes most consistent with aspiration and/or pneumonia.
CT scan linked again: https://imgur.com/a/23phLQy
ER doctor brushes off my concern about the exposure to the gas/smoke as a coincidence and says I have pneumonia. I have no cough or fever. When I spit bloody mucus 1-2x a day, it’s just sitting in my throat, not from coughing - brought out with some throat clearing.
Bloody with minimal mucus today: https://imgur.com/a/vUNwFfq
Treatment plan from ER is 2 antibiotics: Doxycycline (2x/day, 5 days) and Amoxicillin-Clav (2x/day, 7 days)
At this point it’s been a week since the smoke from the microwaved coaster.
I see a pulmonologist on Friday at 8:30 AM. Originally it was for the PFT results, which I do not know, but I called up today and said I would want to talk about this pneumonia diagnosis.
Do I need to press for them to more seriously take the possibility of chemical burn/chemical pneumonitis?
https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/000143.htm#:~:text=Chemical%20pneumonitis%20is%20inflammation%20of,and%20choking%20on%20certain%20chemicals